From the headline below, can you tell who was crying?

https://nypost.com/2022/12/30/william-left-kate-in-tears-over-nye-plans-royal-expert/

If a HE "left" a SHE "in tears," should we assume that the tears belong to the woman and not the man?

Perhaps this generation of "royals" is just a bunch of big babies, who cry when they don't get their way. Alternatively, Prince William may be more like Georgie Porgie, who "kissed the girls and made them cry."

Still, the language seems ambiguous to me. If I "left her in tears," which one of us is crying?