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What strikes me as most interesting is that, while Locke did say that government is only legitimate so long as it had the consent of the governed, he had no issue with the concept of tacit (implicit) consent. For Locke, merely being in an area that a government claims sovereignty over subjects one to its laws.

The other thing I disagree with Locke on his proviso regarding "as much and as good" and mixing labor with resources to acquire property, but that's kind of an involved topic. lol

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